Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 04:52
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you were president, how would you make America "great again?"
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why do I feel so lazy every time I get into my room?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
How do you write a letter to your uncle who sent you money for your birthday outfit?
There's no rule.